Wednesday, August 31, 2016

200-401 Managing Industrial Networks exam dumps online

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Share some Cisco Specialist 200-401 exam questions and answers below.

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Tuesday, August 30, 2016

VMware 2V0-621 Data Center Virtualization exam dumps

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Share some VCP6-DCV 2V0-621 exam questions and answers below.
An administrator wishes to give a user the ability to manage snapshots for virtual machines. 
Which privilege does the administrator need to assign to the user? 
A. Datastore.Allocate Space 
B. Virtual machine.Configuration.create snapshot 
C. Virtual machine.Configuration.manage snapshot 
D. Datastore.Browse Datastore 
Answer: A

An administrator with global administrator privileges creates a custom role but fails to assign any 
privileges to it. 
Which two privileges would the custom role have? (Choose two.) 
A. System.View 
B. System.Anonymous 
C. System.User 
D. System.ReadOnly 
Answer: A, B

Which two roles can be modified? (Choose two.) 
A. Administrator 
B. Network Administrator 
C. Datastore Consumer 
D. Read-Only 
Answer: B, C

An object has inherited permissions from two parent objects. 
What is true about the permissions on the object? 
A. The common permissions between the two are applied and the rest are discarded. 
B. The permissions are combined from both parent objects. 
C. No permissions are applied from the parent objects. 
D. The permission is randomly selected from either of the two parent objects. 
Answer: B

An administrator wants to provide users restricted access. The users should only be able to perform the 
following tasks: 
-Create and consolidate virtual machine snapshots 
-Add/Remove virtual disks 
-Snapshot Management 
Which default role in vCenter Server would meet the administrator's requirements for the users? 
A. Virtual machine user 
B. Virtual machine power user 
C. Virtual Datacenter administrator 
D. VMware Consolidated Backup user 
Answer: B

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Monday, August 29, 2016

ExamUnion Microsoft Dynamics CRM MB2-710 practice exam

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Saturday, August 27, 2016

Updated 200-125 CCNA v3.0 Routing and Switching exam dumps online

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Share some CCNA Routing and Switching 200-125 exam questions and answers below.
A receiving host computes the checksum on a frame and determines that the frame is damaged. The frame is then discarded. At which OSI layer did this happen? 
A. session 
B. transport 
C. network 
D. data link 
E. physical 
Answer: D

Which layer in the OSI reference model is responsible for determining the availability of the receiving program and checking to see if enough resources exist for that communication? 
A. transport 
B. network 
C. presentation 
D. session 
E. application 
Answer: E

Which of the following describes the roles of devices in a WAN? (Choose three.) 
A. A CSU/DSU terminates a digital local loop. 
B. A modem terminates a digital local loop. 
C. A CSU/DSU terminates an analog local loop. 
D. A modem terminates an analog local loop. 
E. A router is commonly considered a DTE device. 
F. A router is commonly considered a DCE device. 
Answer: A,D,E

A network administrator is verifying the configuration of a newly installed host by establishing an FTP connection to a remote server. What is the highest layer of the protocol stack that the network administrator is using for this operation? 
A. application 
B. presentation 
C. session 
D. transport 
E. internet 
F. data link 
Answer: A

A router has two Fast Ethernet interfaces and needs to connect to four VLANs in the local network. How can you accomplish this task, using the fewest physical interfaces and without decreasing network performance? 
A. Use a hub to connect the four VLANS with a Fast Ethernet interface on the router. 
B. Add a second router to handle the VLAN traffic. 
C. Add two more Fast Ethernet interfaces. 
D. Implement a router-on-a-stick configuration. 
Answer: D


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Friday, August 26, 2016

Examunion 70-697 Microsoft Configuring Windows 10 Devices practice exam

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Share some MCP 70-697 exam questions and answers below.
You support Windows 10 Enterprise computers that are members of an Active Directory domain. Your company policy defines the list of approved Windows Store apps that are allowed for download and installation. You have created a new AppLocker Packaged Apps policy to help enforce the company policy. You need to test the new AppLocker Packaged Apps policy before you implement it for the entire company. What should you do? 
A. From Group Policy, enforce the new AppLocker policy in Audit Only mode. 
B. From Group Policy, run the Group Policy Results Wizard. 
C. From Group Policy, run the Group Policy Modeling Wizard. 
D. From PowerShell, run the Get-AppLockerPolicy -effective command to retrieve the AppLocker effective policy. 
Answer: A

You have a computer named Computer1 that runs Windows 10 Enterprise. Computer1 is a member of an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. You have a line-of-business universal app named App1. App1 is developed internally. You need to ensure that you can run App1 on Computer1. The solution must meet the following requirements: 
- Minimize costs to deploy the app. 
- Minimize the attack surface on Computer1. 
What should you do? 
A. Have App1 certified by the Windows Store. 
B. Sign App1 with a certificate issued by a third-party certificate authority. 
C. From the Update & Security setting on Computer1, enable the Sideload apps setting. 
D. Run the Add-AppxProvisionedPackage cmdlet. 
Answer: C

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Thursday, August 25, 2016

Examunion 100-105 ICND1 V3.0 Cisco Networking Devices Part 1 exam questions material

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Share some CCENT 100-105 exam questions and answers below.
At which layer of the OSI model does the protocol that provides the information that is displayed by the show cdp neighbors command operate? 
A. application 
B. transport 
C. network 
D. physical 
E. data link 
Answer: E

Which statements accurately describe CDP? (Choose three.) 
A. CDP is an IEEE standard protocol. 
B. CDP is a Cisco proprietary protocol. 
C. CDP is a datalink layer protocol. 
D. CDP is a network layer protocol. 
E. CDP can discover directly connected neighboring Cisco devices. 
F. CDP can discover Cisco devices that are not directly connected. 
Answer: B,C,E

Which three statements are true about the operation of a full-duplex Ethernet network? (Choose three.) 
A. There are no collisions in full-duplex mode. 
B. A dedicated switch port is required for each full-duplex node. 
C. Ethernet hub ports are preconfigured for full-duplex mode. 
D. In a full-duplex environment, the host network card must check for the availability of the network media before transmitting. 
E. The host network card and the switch port must be capable of operating in full-duplex mode. 
Answer: A,B,E

Which two statements describe the operation of the CSMA/CD access method? (Choose two.) 
A. In a CSMA/CD collision domain, multiple stations can successfully transmit data simultaneously. 
B. In a CSMA/CD collision domain, stations must wait until the media is not in use before transmitting. 
C. The use of hubs to enlarge the size of collision domains is one way to improve the operation of the CSMA/CD access method. 
D. After a collision, the station that detected the collision has first priority to resend the lost data. 
E. After a collision, all stations run a random backoff algorithm. When the backoff delay period has expired, all stations have equal priority to transmit data. 
F. After a collision, all stations involved run an identical backoff algorithm and then synchronize with each other prior to transmitting data. 
Answer: B,E

On a Cisco switch, which protocol determines if an attached VoIP phone is from Cisco or from another vendor? 
A. RTP 
B. TCP 
C. CDP 
D. UDP 
Answer: C

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Wednesday, August 24, 2016

Examunion Cisco CCIE Routing and Switching Written 400-101 exam test

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Share some CCIE 400-101 exam questions and answers below.
Which two options are the two main phases of PPPoE? (Choose two.) 
A. Active Discovery Phase 
B. IKE Phase 
C. Main Mode Phase 
D. PPP Session Phase 
E. Aggressive Mode Phase 
F. Negotiation Phase 
Answer: A, D

Which option describes how a VTPv3 device responds when it detects a VTPv2 device on a trunk port? 
A. It sends VTPv3 packets only. 
B. It sends VTPv2 packets only. 
C. It sends VTPv3 and VTPv2 packets. 
D. It sends a special packet that contains VTPv3 and VTPv2 packet information. 
Answer: C

Which three statements about EVCs are true? (Choose three.) 
A. Spanning Tree must use MST mode on EVC ports. 
B. PAGP is supported on EVC ports. 
C. Spanning Tree must use RSTP mode on EVC ports. 
D. LACP is supported on EVC ports. 
E. Layer 2 multicast framing is supported. 
F. Bridge domain routing is required. 
Answer: A, B, D

Which variable in an EEM applet is set when you use the sync yes option? 
A. $_cli_result 
B. $_result 
C. $_string_result 
D. $_exit_status 
Answer: D

Which three statements about SPAN traffic monitoring are true? (Choose three.) 
A. Traffic from a non-source VLAN is discarded when it arrives on a source VLAN. 
B. Multiple sessions can send traffic to an individual destination port. 
C. It supports up to 32 SPAN ports per switch. 
D. The destination port acts as a normal switchport. 
E. It supports up to 64 SPAN ports per switch. 
F. Only one session can send traffic to an individual destination port. 
Answer: A, E, F

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Tuesday, August 23, 2016

E20-007 Data Science and Big Data Analytics certification exam braindumps

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Monday, August 22, 2016

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